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jasirs94 at Nov 20, 2016 02:50 AM

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(Foot-note continued)
as some logicians do, that the force of the induction is just the same as that of a syllogism whose major premiss should be, "Future experience will not violate the uniformity of past experience." For such a syllogism being a fallacy of the particularly atrocious kind called "logical fallacy," would have no justification whatsoever. For a sound syllogism must have a major premiss of definite meaning: otherwise it may be thrown into the form of a fallacy of undistributed middle. Now the induction in question, though weak, is by no means without justification.
(End of foot Note)

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